Food for thought

I have a question.   When did sex refer to sexual preference?

The civil rights act prohibits discrimination on basis of “race, color, religion, sex, or national origin.”

It is my understanding that sex is in reference to gender- male or female, and as far as I know there are only two genders.

If homosexuals are given the right to marry under the guise of discrimination, aren’t we then creating special sub-genders?  Thus discriminating against everyone else who does not fit into that special sub-gender.

Please stop the insanity.  If you look at this logically, the only logical thing to do is Vote YES on prop.8